Translation Differences
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Translation differences can cause problems in understanding scriptures two ways. One way is mistranslation of words, while the other is adding to or taking away from (removing) scriptures. Consider the following examples (pointed out by Skip Moen, D. Phi) of adding to scripture in order to change its meaning:
For the law was given by Moses but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ. (KJV) John 1:17
Theological Propaganda - By Skip Moen, D. Phil
But - You won't find the Greek word for this translation in Today's Word index because there is no Greek word in the original text. The translation adds the word "but" to the sentence. That little addition changes everything. It's not a slip. It's deliberate. And it's deliberate propaganda!
About a month ago I got a letter from Boaz Michael. He mentioned this verse in his letter, pointing out that the addition of "but" created a terrible tragedy for believers. It is the tragedy of thinking that law and grace are opposed to each other; that Moses and Jesus don't say the same thing. When the translators added "but" to the sentence, they implied that Christians and Jews have different gospels. They separated believers into two camps; those who lived under the Mosaic code [or man-made rabbinic code] and those who lived under the free grace of the Gospels. What a disaster for all of us!
It's hard to imagine that men took such steps to break the Word of God in two, but they did. They wanted an unbridgeable gap between the Older Testament and the Newer Testament, and for hundreds of years they have succeeded, convincing millions of God-fearing, humble followers that Jesus did not teach what Moses was given. All those followers struggled to find a clear path of obedience. Some succeeded. Many did not. God always uses what we are able to give, but we certainly made it much harder by believing what the "professionals" told us rather than looking for ourselves. They got away with theological murder - and we let them.
The first principle of biblical interpretation is this: God does not contradict Himself. If He tells Moses that there are certain steps to be taken in obedience to Him that will insure our greatest usefulness in His purposes, you can be assured that Jesus did not say something different. This is even more the case when we realize and profess that Jesus is God. When it comes to salvation, God has not changed His mind. Salvation is by grace and grace alone. That was true for Moses and it's true for us. That is exactly what Jesus taught. But usefulness comes through obedience and obedience is determined by a code of conduct revealed to Moses and endorsed by Jesus. That has also always been the case. Don't let any translator slip that one past you. You do not serve two gods. You serve only One God and He is the same yesterday, today and tomorrow.
I know that many of us struggle with this truth. We have been hearing the gospel of grace and the evils of the Law so long that we are convinced that Jesus was a radical revisionary. Please look again. You have nothing to lose by asking yourself exactly what Jesus taught about the Mosaic code of conduct, but you have a great deal to lose if you just go on thinking that none of the "Law" applies to you. Don't become a "yes-man" just because your favorite translation adds a word here or there. Insist on truth. Demand that those who know tell you what words are really in the text and what words aren't.
Example 2 of translators adding to scripture:
Therefore, let no one act as your judge in regard to food or drink or in respect to a festival or a new moon or Sabbath days, things which are a [mere] shadow of what is to come; but the substance belongs to Christ. Colossians 2:16-17 (NASB)
Propaganda Added Mere - When you read the word "mere" in this verse, does it communicate the idea that those things which Paul has just described as of lesser importance? We see that Paul lists those activities that would be part of Torah observance, but when the translators introduce the word "mere" into this verse, they change the emphasis, don't they? Since there is no Greek equivalent for the word "mere", the translators put the word in brackets. They better! What they have done is alter the text so that it reads according to their theological bias. It makes the text appear to discount Torah observance. Try reading the verse without the word "mere" and you will get a different message. The NASB is committed to a two covenant theology (old covenant and new covenant), and the translation puts it into this verse without giving the reader any explanation or justification.
The NIV is worse. The translators of the NIV actually change the tense of the Greek so that this verse reads, "These are a shadow of things that were to come; the reality, however, is found in Christ." This is blatant theological propaganda disguised as accurate translation. You will also notice that the rest of the verse has been changed the further diminish the connection to Torah by adding the word "however." Now you know why I often refer to the NIV as the "Nearly Inspired Version." The translators alter, add or subtract from the Greek and Hebrew in order to communicate their particular theological position. Of course, they don't tell the reader anything about these decisions, so the poor reader doesn't know that they are being spoon-fed theological propaganda, not an accurate translation.
[Look at the scripture again: Therefore, let no one act as your judge in regard to food or drink or in respect to a festival or a new moon or Sabbath days, things which are a [mere] shadow of what is to come; but the substance belongs to Christ. Colossians 2:16-17 (NASB).
I can take it one step further. The words translated into English here as "the substance belongs to" is translated as: "but the body [is] of" in the KJV, which is much closer to the Greek. The problem is the proper translation doesn't make sense. Or does it?
Considering the way Greek reads, it is possible the scripture should read more like this:
Therefore, let no one act as your judge, but the body of Christ, in regard to food or drink or in respect to a festival or a new moon or Sabbath days, things which are a shadow of what is to come.
This actually makes sense, because as the body of Christ (actually Yeshua) we are to act as judge over one another to keep each other accountable (on track following Torah). Haven't you ever heard of accountability partners? In this light, the scripture now makes sense, because this scripture is addressing the believers who were following after pagan gods but began to turn back to YHWH's dietary laws, Sabbaths, Feast Days and New Moons, so the pagans they were worshiping with started to criticize them.
What a difference a translation makes. A good rule of thumb is to always go back to the original language the scripture was written in. It's easier than you may think. I'll show you how later.]*
Pray that God will lead to you someone who will help you know what He said. God listens to those kinds of prayers. I know because I was blind myself before He heard my cry. This is a journey and we are traveling together. Just hold on to the one who is a step in front of you and ask a lot of questions. - Skip Moen, D. Phil.
*[~] Inserted by the owner of this web site.
Here are just a few of many examples of translation error and bias that are written of, in the book: Copernicus And The Jews - The Separation Of Church & Faith by Daniel Gruber
In the Greek, the word “sunagogen” is where we get the word synagogue. The Greek word “ecclesia” is where we get the word “church”.
Now days you would say a church is not the same thing as a synagogue. In fact, you would say they are almost opposites. In biblical days, they both meant the same thing; assembly. Neither meant church or synagogue.
With this in mind, why did the translators use the word “assembly” in James 2:2
2 For if a man comes into your [a]assembly with a gold ring and dressed in [b]fine clothes, and there also comes in a poor man in dirty clothes…
The word the translators decided to use here is “assembly”, even though the same word “sunagogen” (synagogue) is the original word in the Greek. Why? Could it be because the translators didn’t want it to be known the believers were still meeting in synagogues years after the death and resurrection of Yeshua?
Another Example:
Why in the book of Revelation when it talks about the “synagogue of satan” (Revelation 3:9), is the word “synagogue” used when the Greek word is the same word “sunagogen”? Could it be the translators wanted to connect satan with synagogue, implying satan is in the synagogue?
Far fetched?
In Acts 19:41 the word “ecclesia” is used. This word is translated in other places as “church”, but in this scripture that speaks of everyone worshiping the goddess artemis, the word “assembly” is used instead of “church”. Why? Could it be because the translators didn’t want the “church” associated with a pagan god?
The Language Barrier - Norman B. Willis of Nazarene Israel - http://www.nazareneisrael.org/
One of the reasons Hellenized Jews are sometimes (derisively) called Greek Jews is that they do not always place much emphasis on the Hebrew language. More than just never having learned it, a Greek does not believe there is any real need to learn the original divine tongue (just as Christianity teaches).
In other words, while Greeks might like to learn Hebrew, they feel it is not really important. Therefore, so long as a reasonably good translation exists in a language they already know (for example, the Greek Septuagint, the Latin Vulgate, or even the English King James Version), they find no compelling reason to learn to read the Word in YHWH’s original divine tongue. Because they feel that Greek is every bit as good a language as Hebrew, the Hebrews (derisively) called them Greeks.
Having no zeal for the Hebrew tongue, Greeks will readily substitute foreign words for the original Hebrew terms. Therefore, the Greek-language term Christ (which is derived from Krishna, [or the pagan god serapis christus that the Greco-Roman Egyptians were following from 305 B.C. to 325 C.E. created by Ptolemy I Soter in an effort to unite the Romans and Egyptians]) is readily substituted for the Hebrew word Messiah; and the Greek finds no problem with this practice.
However, while Hellenists and their Christian descendants may find nothing wrong with considering
pagan tongues the equivalent of Hebrew, Hebrews find this practice repulsive. We should remember, then, that the Nazarene authors of the New Covenant were definitely Hebrews; and the Hebrews traditionally kept a discreet distance from all others.
The Oracles of Elohim were entrusted to the Jews (meaning religiously devout Hebrews):
1 What advantage then has the Jew, or what is the profit of circumcision? 2 Much in every way! Chiefly because to them were committed the oracles of Elohim. [Romaya (Romans) 3:1-2]
As we will verify below, the Jews have always spoken Hebrew; so why are we told that the disciples were called by a Greek linguistic term, when Jews consider the Greek language abominable?
The Western Church informs us that Greek was the lingua franca (the common day-to-day language) of first century Judea; but this is contrary to history. Josephus spoke Greek, but that was only because he had been educated as an aristocrat. He was far more educated than the majority of the other Jews of his day, and although he eventually wrote most of his works in Greek, he tells us he was just one of a handful of Jews who could read or write the language; and even then, he was unable to speak it fluently. He tells us that the Hebrews did not like to learn Greek:
If even scholarly Josephus had difficulty in pronouncing Greek with sufficient exactness (though he had taken great pains to learn it), then how are we to believe that the uneducated fishermen who later became the Nazarene Apostles would have had either the time or the inclination, to learn how to speak it?
Moreover, why would they write their epistles in it? Are we to assume that the Nazarenes wrote their epistles in a language that they did not speak, read or write, and which they found morally repugnant?
Is it not far more intelligent to assume that the uneducated Jewish (i.e. religiously-observant) Apostles wrote their epistles in the only languages that they knew; which would have been the synagogue languages of Hebrew and/or Aramaic?
Jews have always maintained that Scripture is only properly written in the original divine tongue of Hebrew; and/or its sister Semitic tongue, Aramaic. For this reason, Hebrew and Aramaic have always been the only official languages of the synagogue. Remembering that the Nazarenes were Jews (in the religious sense of the word), they would have known that if they wanted their epistles to be read aloud in the synagogues, then their epistles would have to have been written either in Hebrew, or in Aramaic. -Norman B. Willis
"What English Bible is the best?" The answer is "It depends." You have to know what kind of translation method is used, and then you have to adjust for the possible consequences. No English Bible captures all that the original text means. Start there, then work your way to a place where you can be comfortable with searching deeper. Don't let anyone tell you that a verse in English or any other translated language is what the Scripture really means. Get some excavation tools and start digging for yourself. - Skip Moen, D. Phil.
Here is a very handy tool: This online and free downloadable program gives you the best of both worlds. English translation (KJV), Hebrew words along with each Hebrew letter's most equivalent English letters and of course, the English word equivalent (all on each page!). Here is the link: http://www.scripture4all.org/ It also includes the Greek Newer Testament as well, but quite frankly the Greek direct to English translation is much more difficult to read than the Hebrew direct to English translation. Built-in Strongs concordance is included with both. This is a very valuable tool for no cost.
Mistranslation Or Poor Translations Of Words
The following are scriptural instances I recorded during my scripture reading with the Aramaic Newer Testament and for the Older Testament, an HIB (Hebrew Interlinear Bible), which includes KJV (King James Version) for comparison. Some differences are slight and therefore do not change the meaning of the scripture, however some are very different, changing the meaning of the verse completely.
`Adoni` should be Adni (Deut. 3:24) With the "o" added, Adni becomes awful close to the pagan god adon, which became adonis.
O Lord God (hib=Adni Yahweh) Adni: A= Hebrew letter Aleph=strength=represents Yahweh, d=dallet=door, n=nun=spirit of life, i=yod=hand
`Atonement` (KJV) = proprietary shelter (HIB)
Lev 16:6 (KJV)The fat shall be burned as a sweet savour (HIB=restful fragrance) to YHWH.
` Before Me`
In Exodus 20:3, most westernized bibles say something like:
3 “You shall have no other gods before Me.
In Hebrew this verse says something much different:
“There will not be to you other Elohim upon (on) My Face”
Do you see the difference? YHWH is actually saying “Do not worship other gods and claim they are Me” This is like making a pagan holiday that honors pagan gods into something that says it is honoring YHWH. Something like christmas or easter.
‘Believe’
36 He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God [Elohim] abideth on him. [John 3:36, KJV]
36 “He who believes in the Son has eternal life; but he who does not obey the Son will not see life, but the wrath of Elohim abides on him.” [Yochanan (John) 3:36]
36 He that [Strong’s G#4100] on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that [Strong’s G#544] the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him. [John 3:36, KJV]
Strong’s G#4100 is ‘pisteuoon’, meaning to think something is true (or to believe that something is true,
but only in an intellectual sense). In contrast, Strong’s G#544 is ‘apeithoon’, meaning to disbelieve, in the sense of disobeying.
When we plug these words in at the appropriate places, we see that what John the Baptist really said is that anyone thinking Yeshua is the Messiah does indeed receive eternal life. However, unless this thought-belief leads them to obey the Marital Covenant (Torah), they will not be taken as part of His bride; and therefore they will not see eternal life.
`Born Again`
John 3:6-7
6 That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit. 7 Do not be amazed that I said to you, ‘You must be born [c]again. ’ (Greek: “born from above”)
`Church`, in most English versions of the Bible, is a gross mistranslation of the Greek word, ekklesia, which means congregation or assembly.
`Covenant`
Joshua 9:11
Wherefore our elders and all the inhabitants of our country spake to us, saying, Take victuals with you for the journey, and go to meet them, and say unto them, We are your servants: therefore now make ye a league with us. (HIB and NKJV use the word “covenant” instead of “league” perhaps not a minor thing since this story in Joshua 9 tells of the sacredness of a covenant (even one made by deception like this one) and the fact they are inter-generational as well as the very serious consequences of breaking one.(2 Samuel 21)
`Crucify`
Aramaic= nail to the stake
`Faith`
How do I act when I am faithful? For that answer, we need to look at the Hebrew thought behind this Greek word. We arrive at Numbers 12:7, for example, where the Greek word pistos translates the Hebrew word 'aman. This Hebrew word paints a very tangible picture. Its primary meaning is to provide stability and confidence. Suddenly faithfulness is no longer simply mental affirmation. It is no longer just about what I think. It is about the concrete actions of unshakeable trust.
`Fulfill`
In Aramaic “fulfill” means “to give proper interpretation”, In Hebrew it means to "cut straight" (do it right).
So when Yeshua said “I have not come to abolish the law, but rather to fulfill it”, that’s what He meant, and that's what he did. Every chance he got, he broke the commandments of man to show the difference.
`Generations`
The word translated generations in most English Bibles is translated as chronicles in the Artscroll Chumash. It is a translation of the Hebrew word, Toldot (tAd.lAT). This word can mean chronicles/history or descendants/generations. So which do we use? Context determines how we translate it.
`Gentiles`
However, of the Jews that were in Babylonian captivity and returned to Israel, some continued to live like Babylonians. Those who despised the Torah were to be cut off from the Nation, the rabbis could not call the partially observant ‘Jews’; nor could they call them Gentiles (as they had called Ephraim), since the partly-observant were still readily identifiable as Israelites.
The rabbis needed to come up with some other name; and therefore they decided that since these Hellenized Jews kept the customs and traditions of the other nations, that they should be called Hellenized (or Greek) Jews.
The King James, however, renders this word ‘Greeks’ as ‘Gentiles’
`Grove of Trees`(specific to Deut. 16:21)
21Thou shalt not plant thee a grove of any trees (Hib=”Fetish of happiness”, Strongs H833 says Fetish of happiness = happy; Asherah (or Astarte) a Phoenician goddess; also an image of the same.) near unto the altar of the LORD thy God, which thou shalt make thee
`Humbled` (KJV) Humiliated (HIB) – In reference to a man raping a woman
`I Am`
When Moses asked what he was to tell the Israelites YHWH’s name was, He told him I Am who I Am. (Hib= I shall become who I shall become) Ex 3:14
`Mercy Seat`
In most scriptures, “propitiatory shelter” is used when KJV says “atonement”, but in Lev. 16:15 KJV says “mercy seat” while HIB says “propitiatory shelter”
In Lev. 16:20, “propitiatory shelter” (HIB) while KJV says “reconciling”.
Also in vs. 20, the “Tabernacle” (KJV) is called “the tent of appointment” (HIB)
`Name`
When Moses asked what he was to tell the Israelites YHWH’s name was, He told him I Am who I Am. (Hib= I shall become who I shall become) Ex 3:14 Ex.
3:15 NKJV
Moreover God said to Moses, “Thus you shall say to the children of Israel: ‘The LORD God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you. This is My name forever, and this is My memorial to all generations.’
HIB=
and·he-is-saying further Elohim to Moses thus you-shall-say to sons-of Israel Yahweh Elohim-of fathers-of·you Elohim-of Abraham Elohim-of Isaac and·Elohim-of Jacob he-sent·me to·you this name-of·me remembrance-of·me for·generation (to) generation.
Numbers 21:4
And they journeyed from mount Hor by the way of the Red sea, to compass the land of Edom: and the soul of the people was much discouraged (HIB=impatient) because of the way.
Numbers 21:17
they went to Beer well where YHWH spake to Moses and said “Gather the people together, and Iwill give them water”. Then they sang the song:”Spring up O well”(HIB=Come up you O well respond you to her)
Numbers 23:22
KJV-God brought them out of Egypt; he hath as it were the strength of an unicorn (HIB=wild ox)
James 1:6
6But he must )ask in faith without any doubting, for the one who doubts is like the surf of the sea, driven and tossed by the wind. NASB=doubting, KJV=wavering, Aram=hesitating
17Every good thing given and every perfect gift is from above, coming down from the Father of lights, with whom there is no variation or shifting shadow.
NASB=variation, KJV=, Aram=changing, not even the shadow of change.
John 6:2
And a great multitude followed him, because they saw his miracles which he did on them that were diseased. (HIB=sick)
John 6:21
Then they willingly received him into the ship: and immediately (Aramiac=that hour) the ship was at the land whither they went.
KJV=separation (hib= impurity)
John 17:15 (subtle meaning change)
NKJV= I do not pray that You should take them out of the world, but that You should keep them from the evil one.
Aram=…that You might keep evil from them.
Gal. 2:16
`Sweet savour` (HIB=restful fragrance)
“Syrian” (KJV)= Aramean (HIB)
Jacob was a “plain” (KJV) man HIB=”flawless”
`Order of Scripture`
When the Apostles put together their original canon, they placed the writings of Ya’akov, Kefa, Yochanan and Yehudah (James, Peter, John and Jude) in front of the epistles of Shaul. This was done precisely so the reader would first read the warnings contained in these so-called ‘Jewish’ Apostles’ letters and not think that Shaul was suggesting that the Commandments were done away with. (The order was later re-arranged by the Church.)
`Passover`
he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter (sic) to bring him forth to the people. [Ma’aseh (Acts) 12:4 KJV]
All major versions since the King James have corrected this error. Even the New King James reads:
4 So when he had arrested him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four squads of soldiers to keep him, intending to bring him before the people after Passover. [Ma’aseh (Acts) 12:4 NKJV]
`Paul’s Writings`
King James Version reads:
16 Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holy day, or of the new moons, or of the sabbath (days): [17] Which are a shadow of things to come; but the body (is) of Christ. [Colossians 2:16-17, KJV]
The King James makes it appear as if we should never let anyone judge us according to what we eat or drink, or what days we keep in worship. It also seems to suggest that it makes no difference whether we keep the same days of worship the Apostles kept, or whether we keep the Sun-day and Easter, because (after all) the Body is of Messiah
When we take this back to the Greek Texts, we find that the words in parenthesis, (days) and (is) do not appear. They appear in the King James only because the translators added these words, in order to make the passage harmonize with the popular view that the Law and the Prophets had been abolished.
Here is the exact same passage, but with the supplied words (days) and (is) taken out:
16 Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holy day, or of the new moons, or of the Sabbath; which are a shadow of things to come; but the Body of Christ [Colossians 2:16-17]
In other words:
16 Let no man but the Body of Messiah judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holy day, or of the new moons, or of the Sabbath; for the festivals are shadows of things (still) to come. [Colossians 2:16-17]
Rather than telling us that the festivals do not matter, Shaul is actually telling us that we should keep the Sabbath, the Festivals and the New Moons, because they are prophetic shadows of future events. Shaul’s true meaning, however, is not at all reflected in the New International Version, which reads:
16 Therefore do not let anyone judge you by what you eat or drink, or with regard to a religious festival, a New Moon celebration or a Sabbath day. 17 These are a shadow of the things that were to come; the reality, however, is found in Christ. [Colossians 2:16-17, NIV]
The NIV tells us that these prophetic shadows of future events are now all discarded, or irrelevant. The NIV further suggests that as long as one believes that Yeshua is the Messiah, it no longer makes any difference what one might eat or drink, or what days of worship one might decide to keep (if any).
Romans 5:7
7 For scarcely for a righteous (this word is supposed to be “wicked”, not righteous. This was a translation mistake from the Aramaic.) man will one die; yet perhaps for a good man someone would even dare to die.
` Propitiatory Shelter`
In addition to being translated as “atonement” by KJV, “propitiatory shelter” is translated as “mercy seat” by KJV in 16:15, “propitiatory shelter” is also translated as “reconciling” by KJV in Lev. 16:20.
`Prosper` = “act intelligently” (HIB)
Lev 17:7 (KJV) And they shall no more offer their sacrifices unto devils (HIB hairy goat idols), after whom they have gone a whoring. This shall be a statute for ever unto them throughout their generations.
Gen 28
17 And he was afraid, and said, How dreadful (HIB says “being feared”)[is] this place! this [is] none other but the house of God, and this [is] the gate of heaven (hib=the Heavens).
Genesis 48:22
Moreover I have given to you one portion (hib = mountain slope) above your brothers, which I took from the hand of the Amorite with my sword and my bow.”
Genesis 49:6
Let not my soul enter their council; Let not my honor be united to their assembly; For in their anger they slew a man, And in their self-will they hamstrung an ox (this is NKJV. KJV says wall not ox. HIB says bull).
Exodus 1:16
When speaking of the place the Hebrew women gave birth, KJV calls them the “stools” HIB says the “bracing stones”.
Deut. 29:9
Therefore keep the words of this covenant, and do them, that you may prosper (hib= act intelligently) in all that you do.
Deut. 33:8 – Thummim & Urim
And of Levi he said: “Let Your Thummim (HIB=flawlessness) and Your Urim (HIB=lights of you) be with Your holy one, Whom You tested at Massah, And with whom You contended at the waters of Meribah,
Leviticus 19:26 Vs 26 Ye shall not eat [anything] with the blood: neither shall ye use enchantment (hib=augur), nor observe times(hib=consult cloud).
`Reconciling`
In Lev. 16:20, “propitiatory shelter” (HIB) while KJV says “reconciling”.
`Tabernacle`
In Lev. 16:20, “Tabernacle” (KJV) is called “the tent of appointment” (HIB)
`Tribes` HIB = Stocks from H5186; a branch (as extending); figuratively, a tribe; also a rod, whether for chastising (figuratively, correction), ruling (a sceptre), throwing (a lance), or walking (a staff; figuratively, a support of life, e.g. bread):--rod, staff, tribe.
‘Tribulation’
HIB=Narrow or tight place, -trouble, an opponent
`Unclean Foods`
Many have interpreted Mark 7:17-19 (the account of the washing of the hands), to mean that Yeshua set aside the food laws. Many western Bibles go as far as to say it in their footnotes, but by doing so he would have contradicted himself. His detractors had just accused him of not observing their traditions, and he had responded that they did far worse; they did not observe the commandments of the Torah (vv. 9-13). To choose this time to set aside other commandments of the Torah would have undercut his whole response. It would have left him open to the charge they made, and which he implicitly denied. It would also have shown him to be inconsistent.[76]
But then, what did he mean here?
The passage about the washing of hands does not justify the assumption that Jesus opposed the Jewish legal practice of this time; but by the third century, Origen understood it as signifying the rejection of Jewish dietary laws by Jesus. The overwhelming majority of modern translators thoughtlessly accept Origen's interpretation when they take Mark 7:19b to mean "Thus he declared all foods clean," although the Greek original can hardly be read in this sense. - David Flusser
Translation differences can cause problems in understanding scriptures two ways. One way is mistranslation of words, while the other is adding to or taking away from (removing) scriptures. Consider the following examples (pointed out by Skip Moen, D. Phi) of adding to scripture in order to change its meaning:
For the law was given by Moses but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ. (KJV) John 1:17
Theological Propaganda - By Skip Moen, D. Phil
But - You won't find the Greek word for this translation in Today's Word index because there is no Greek word in the original text. The translation adds the word "but" to the sentence. That little addition changes everything. It's not a slip. It's deliberate. And it's deliberate propaganda!
About a month ago I got a letter from Boaz Michael. He mentioned this verse in his letter, pointing out that the addition of "but" created a terrible tragedy for believers. It is the tragedy of thinking that law and grace are opposed to each other; that Moses and Jesus don't say the same thing. When the translators added "but" to the sentence, they implied that Christians and Jews have different gospels. They separated believers into two camps; those who lived under the Mosaic code [or man-made rabbinic code] and those who lived under the free grace of the Gospels. What a disaster for all of us!
It's hard to imagine that men took such steps to break the Word of God in two, but they did. They wanted an unbridgeable gap between the Older Testament and the Newer Testament, and for hundreds of years they have succeeded, convincing millions of God-fearing, humble followers that Jesus did not teach what Moses was given. All those followers struggled to find a clear path of obedience. Some succeeded. Many did not. God always uses what we are able to give, but we certainly made it much harder by believing what the "professionals" told us rather than looking for ourselves. They got away with theological murder - and we let them.
The first principle of biblical interpretation is this: God does not contradict Himself. If He tells Moses that there are certain steps to be taken in obedience to Him that will insure our greatest usefulness in His purposes, you can be assured that Jesus did not say something different. This is even more the case when we realize and profess that Jesus is God. When it comes to salvation, God has not changed His mind. Salvation is by grace and grace alone. That was true for Moses and it's true for us. That is exactly what Jesus taught. But usefulness comes through obedience and obedience is determined by a code of conduct revealed to Moses and endorsed by Jesus. That has also always been the case. Don't let any translator slip that one past you. You do not serve two gods. You serve only One God and He is the same yesterday, today and tomorrow.
I know that many of us struggle with this truth. We have been hearing the gospel of grace and the evils of the Law so long that we are convinced that Jesus was a radical revisionary. Please look again. You have nothing to lose by asking yourself exactly what Jesus taught about the Mosaic code of conduct, but you have a great deal to lose if you just go on thinking that none of the "Law" applies to you. Don't become a "yes-man" just because your favorite translation adds a word here or there. Insist on truth. Demand that those who know tell you what words are really in the text and what words aren't.
Example 2 of translators adding to scripture:
Therefore, let no one act as your judge in regard to food or drink or in respect to a festival or a new moon or Sabbath days, things which are a [mere] shadow of what is to come; but the substance belongs to Christ. Colossians 2:16-17 (NASB)
Propaganda Added Mere - When you read the word "mere" in this verse, does it communicate the idea that those things which Paul has just described as of lesser importance? We see that Paul lists those activities that would be part of Torah observance, but when the translators introduce the word "mere" into this verse, they change the emphasis, don't they? Since there is no Greek equivalent for the word "mere", the translators put the word in brackets. They better! What they have done is alter the text so that it reads according to their theological bias. It makes the text appear to discount Torah observance. Try reading the verse without the word "mere" and you will get a different message. The NASB is committed to a two covenant theology (old covenant and new covenant), and the translation puts it into this verse without giving the reader any explanation or justification.
The NIV is worse. The translators of the NIV actually change the tense of the Greek so that this verse reads, "These are a shadow of things that were to come; the reality, however, is found in Christ." This is blatant theological propaganda disguised as accurate translation. You will also notice that the rest of the verse has been changed the further diminish the connection to Torah by adding the word "however." Now you know why I often refer to the NIV as the "Nearly Inspired Version." The translators alter, add or subtract from the Greek and Hebrew in order to communicate their particular theological position. Of course, they don't tell the reader anything about these decisions, so the poor reader doesn't know that they are being spoon-fed theological propaganda, not an accurate translation.
[Look at the scripture again: Therefore, let no one act as your judge in regard to food or drink or in respect to a festival or a new moon or Sabbath days, things which are a [mere] shadow of what is to come; but the substance belongs to Christ. Colossians 2:16-17 (NASB).
I can take it one step further. The words translated into English here as "the substance belongs to" is translated as: "but the body [is] of" in the KJV, which is much closer to the Greek. The problem is the proper translation doesn't make sense. Or does it?
Considering the way Greek reads, it is possible the scripture should read more like this:
Therefore, let no one act as your judge, but the body of Christ, in regard to food or drink or in respect to a festival or a new moon or Sabbath days, things which are a shadow of what is to come.
This actually makes sense, because as the body of Christ (actually Yeshua) we are to act as judge over one another to keep each other accountable (on track following Torah). Haven't you ever heard of accountability partners? In this light, the scripture now makes sense, because this scripture is addressing the believers who were following after pagan gods but began to turn back to YHWH's dietary laws, Sabbaths, Feast Days and New Moons, so the pagans they were worshiping with started to criticize them.
What a difference a translation makes. A good rule of thumb is to always go back to the original language the scripture was written in. It's easier than you may think. I'll show you how later.]*
Pray that God will lead to you someone who will help you know what He said. God listens to those kinds of prayers. I know because I was blind myself before He heard my cry. This is a journey and we are traveling together. Just hold on to the one who is a step in front of you and ask a lot of questions. - Skip Moen, D. Phil.
*[~] Inserted by the owner of this web site.
Here are just a few of many examples of translation error and bias that are written of, in the book: Copernicus And The Jews - The Separation Of Church & Faith by Daniel Gruber
In the Greek, the word “sunagogen” is where we get the word synagogue. The Greek word “ecclesia” is where we get the word “church”.
Now days you would say a church is not the same thing as a synagogue. In fact, you would say they are almost opposites. In biblical days, they both meant the same thing; assembly. Neither meant church or synagogue.
With this in mind, why did the translators use the word “assembly” in James 2:2
2 For if a man comes into your [a]assembly with a gold ring and dressed in [b]fine clothes, and there also comes in a poor man in dirty clothes…
The word the translators decided to use here is “assembly”, even though the same word “sunagogen” (synagogue) is the original word in the Greek. Why? Could it be because the translators didn’t want it to be known the believers were still meeting in synagogues years after the death and resurrection of Yeshua?
Another Example:
Why in the book of Revelation when it talks about the “synagogue of satan” (Revelation 3:9), is the word “synagogue” used when the Greek word is the same word “sunagogen”? Could it be the translators wanted to connect satan with synagogue, implying satan is in the synagogue?
Far fetched?
In Acts 19:41 the word “ecclesia” is used. This word is translated in other places as “church”, but in this scripture that speaks of everyone worshiping the goddess artemis, the word “assembly” is used instead of “church”. Why? Could it be because the translators didn’t want the “church” associated with a pagan god?
The Language Barrier - Norman B. Willis of Nazarene Israel - http://www.nazareneisrael.org/
One of the reasons Hellenized Jews are sometimes (derisively) called Greek Jews is that they do not always place much emphasis on the Hebrew language. More than just never having learned it, a Greek does not believe there is any real need to learn the original divine tongue (just as Christianity teaches).
In other words, while Greeks might like to learn Hebrew, they feel it is not really important. Therefore, so long as a reasonably good translation exists in a language they already know (for example, the Greek Septuagint, the Latin Vulgate, or even the English King James Version), they find no compelling reason to learn to read the Word in YHWH’s original divine tongue. Because they feel that Greek is every bit as good a language as Hebrew, the Hebrews (derisively) called them Greeks.
Having no zeal for the Hebrew tongue, Greeks will readily substitute foreign words for the original Hebrew terms. Therefore, the Greek-language term Christ (which is derived from Krishna, [or the pagan god serapis christus that the Greco-Roman Egyptians were following from 305 B.C. to 325 C.E. created by Ptolemy I Soter in an effort to unite the Romans and Egyptians]) is readily substituted for the Hebrew word Messiah; and the Greek finds no problem with this practice.
However, while Hellenists and their Christian descendants may find nothing wrong with considering
pagan tongues the equivalent of Hebrew, Hebrews find this practice repulsive. We should remember, then, that the Nazarene authors of the New Covenant were definitely Hebrews; and the Hebrews traditionally kept a discreet distance from all others.
The Oracles of Elohim were entrusted to the Jews (meaning religiously devout Hebrews):
1 What advantage then has the Jew, or what is the profit of circumcision? 2 Much in every way! Chiefly because to them were committed the oracles of Elohim. [Romaya (Romans) 3:1-2]
As we will verify below, the Jews have always spoken Hebrew; so why are we told that the disciples were called by a Greek linguistic term, when Jews consider the Greek language abominable?
The Western Church informs us that Greek was the lingua franca (the common day-to-day language) of first century Judea; but this is contrary to history. Josephus spoke Greek, but that was only because he had been educated as an aristocrat. He was far more educated than the majority of the other Jews of his day, and although he eventually wrote most of his works in Greek, he tells us he was just one of a handful of Jews who could read or write the language; and even then, he was unable to speak it fluently. He tells us that the Hebrews did not like to learn Greek:
If even scholarly Josephus had difficulty in pronouncing Greek with sufficient exactness (though he had taken great pains to learn it), then how are we to believe that the uneducated fishermen who later became the Nazarene Apostles would have had either the time or the inclination, to learn how to speak it?
Moreover, why would they write their epistles in it? Are we to assume that the Nazarenes wrote their epistles in a language that they did not speak, read or write, and which they found morally repugnant?
Is it not far more intelligent to assume that the uneducated Jewish (i.e. religiously-observant) Apostles wrote their epistles in the only languages that they knew; which would have been the synagogue languages of Hebrew and/or Aramaic?
Jews have always maintained that Scripture is only properly written in the original divine tongue of Hebrew; and/or its sister Semitic tongue, Aramaic. For this reason, Hebrew and Aramaic have always been the only official languages of the synagogue. Remembering that the Nazarenes were Jews (in the religious sense of the word), they would have known that if they wanted their epistles to be read aloud in the synagogues, then their epistles would have to have been written either in Hebrew, or in Aramaic. -Norman B. Willis
"What English Bible is the best?" The answer is "It depends." You have to know what kind of translation method is used, and then you have to adjust for the possible consequences. No English Bible captures all that the original text means. Start there, then work your way to a place where you can be comfortable with searching deeper. Don't let anyone tell you that a verse in English or any other translated language is what the Scripture really means. Get some excavation tools and start digging for yourself. - Skip Moen, D. Phil.
Here is a very handy tool: This online and free downloadable program gives you the best of both worlds. English translation (KJV), Hebrew words along with each Hebrew letter's most equivalent English letters and of course, the English word equivalent (all on each page!). Here is the link: http://www.scripture4all.org/ It also includes the Greek Newer Testament as well, but quite frankly the Greek direct to English translation is much more difficult to read than the Hebrew direct to English translation. Built-in Strongs concordance is included with both. This is a very valuable tool for no cost.
Mistranslation Or Poor Translations Of Words
The following are scriptural instances I recorded during my scripture reading with the Aramaic Newer Testament and for the Older Testament, an HIB (Hebrew Interlinear Bible), which includes KJV (King James Version) for comparison. Some differences are slight and therefore do not change the meaning of the scripture, however some are very different, changing the meaning of the verse completely.
`Adoni` should be Adni (Deut. 3:24) With the "o" added, Adni becomes awful close to the pagan god adon, which became adonis.
O Lord God (hib=Adni Yahweh) Adni: A= Hebrew letter Aleph=strength=represents Yahweh, d=dallet=door, n=nun=spirit of life, i=yod=hand
`Atonement` (KJV) = proprietary shelter (HIB)
Lev 16:6 (KJV)The fat shall be burned as a sweet savour (HIB=restful fragrance) to YHWH.
` Before Me`
In Exodus 20:3, most westernized bibles say something like:
3 “You shall have no other gods before Me.
In Hebrew this verse says something much different:
“There will not be to you other Elohim upon (on) My Face”
Do you see the difference? YHWH is actually saying “Do not worship other gods and claim they are Me” This is like making a pagan holiday that honors pagan gods into something that says it is honoring YHWH. Something like christmas or easter.
‘Believe’
36 He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God [Elohim] abideth on him. [John 3:36, KJV]
36 “He who believes in the Son has eternal life; but he who does not obey the Son will not see life, but the wrath of Elohim abides on him.” [Yochanan (John) 3:36]
36 He that [Strong’s G#4100] on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that [Strong’s G#544] the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him. [John 3:36, KJV]
Strong’s G#4100 is ‘pisteuoon’, meaning to think something is true (or to believe that something is true,
but only in an intellectual sense). In contrast, Strong’s G#544 is ‘apeithoon’, meaning to disbelieve, in the sense of disobeying.
When we plug these words in at the appropriate places, we see that what John the Baptist really said is that anyone thinking Yeshua is the Messiah does indeed receive eternal life. However, unless this thought-belief leads them to obey the Marital Covenant (Torah), they will not be taken as part of His bride; and therefore they will not see eternal life.
`Born Again`
John 3:6-7
6 That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit. 7 Do not be amazed that I said to you, ‘You must be born [c]again. ’ (Greek: “born from above”)
`Church`, in most English versions of the Bible, is a gross mistranslation of the Greek word, ekklesia, which means congregation or assembly.
`Covenant`
Joshua 9:11
Wherefore our elders and all the inhabitants of our country spake to us, saying, Take victuals with you for the journey, and go to meet them, and say unto them, We are your servants: therefore now make ye a league with us. (HIB and NKJV use the word “covenant” instead of “league” perhaps not a minor thing since this story in Joshua 9 tells of the sacredness of a covenant (even one made by deception like this one) and the fact they are inter-generational as well as the very serious consequences of breaking one.(2 Samuel 21)
`Crucify`
Aramaic= nail to the stake
`Faith`
How do I act when I am faithful? For that answer, we need to look at the Hebrew thought behind this Greek word. We arrive at Numbers 12:7, for example, where the Greek word pistos translates the Hebrew word 'aman. This Hebrew word paints a very tangible picture. Its primary meaning is to provide stability and confidence. Suddenly faithfulness is no longer simply mental affirmation. It is no longer just about what I think. It is about the concrete actions of unshakeable trust.
`Fulfill`
In Aramaic “fulfill” means “to give proper interpretation”, In Hebrew it means to "cut straight" (do it right).
So when Yeshua said “I have not come to abolish the law, but rather to fulfill it”, that’s what He meant, and that's what he did. Every chance he got, he broke the commandments of man to show the difference.
`Generations`
The word translated generations in most English Bibles is translated as chronicles in the Artscroll Chumash. It is a translation of the Hebrew word, Toldot (tAd.lAT). This word can mean chronicles/history or descendants/generations. So which do we use? Context determines how we translate it.
`Gentiles`
However, of the Jews that were in Babylonian captivity and returned to Israel, some continued to live like Babylonians. Those who despised the Torah were to be cut off from the Nation, the rabbis could not call the partially observant ‘Jews’; nor could they call them Gentiles (as they had called Ephraim), since the partly-observant were still readily identifiable as Israelites.
The rabbis needed to come up with some other name; and therefore they decided that since these Hellenized Jews kept the customs and traditions of the other nations, that they should be called Hellenized (or Greek) Jews.
The King James, however, renders this word ‘Greeks’ as ‘Gentiles’
`Grove of Trees`(specific to Deut. 16:21)
21Thou shalt not plant thee a grove of any trees (Hib=”Fetish of happiness”, Strongs H833 says Fetish of happiness = happy; Asherah (or Astarte) a Phoenician goddess; also an image of the same.) near unto the altar of the LORD thy God, which thou shalt make thee
`Humbled` (KJV) Humiliated (HIB) – In reference to a man raping a woman
`I Am`
When Moses asked what he was to tell the Israelites YHWH’s name was, He told him I Am who I Am. (Hib= I shall become who I shall become) Ex 3:14
`Mercy Seat`
In most scriptures, “propitiatory shelter” is used when KJV says “atonement”, but in Lev. 16:15 KJV says “mercy seat” while HIB says “propitiatory shelter”
In Lev. 16:20, “propitiatory shelter” (HIB) while KJV says “reconciling”.
Also in vs. 20, the “Tabernacle” (KJV) is called “the tent of appointment” (HIB)
`Name`
When Moses asked what he was to tell the Israelites YHWH’s name was, He told him I Am who I Am. (Hib= I shall become who I shall become) Ex 3:14 Ex.
3:15 NKJV
Moreover God said to Moses, “Thus you shall say to the children of Israel: ‘The LORD God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you. This is My name forever, and this is My memorial to all generations.’
HIB=
and·he-is-saying further Elohim to Moses thus you-shall-say to sons-of Israel Yahweh Elohim-of fathers-of·you Elohim-of Abraham Elohim-of Isaac and·Elohim-of Jacob he-sent·me to·you this name-of·me remembrance-of·me for·generation (to) generation.
Numbers 21:4
And they journeyed from mount Hor by the way of the Red sea, to compass the land of Edom: and the soul of the people was much discouraged (HIB=impatient) because of the way.
Numbers 21:17
they went to Beer well where YHWH spake to Moses and said “Gather the people together, and Iwill give them water”. Then they sang the song:”Spring up O well”(HIB=Come up you O well respond you to her)
Numbers 23:22
KJV-God brought them out of Egypt; he hath as it were the strength of an unicorn (HIB=wild ox)
James 1:6
6But he must )ask in faith without any doubting, for the one who doubts is like the surf of the sea, driven and tossed by the wind. NASB=doubting, KJV=wavering, Aram=hesitating
17Every good thing given and every perfect gift is from above, coming down from the Father of lights, with whom there is no variation or shifting shadow.
NASB=variation, KJV=, Aram=changing, not even the shadow of change.
John 6:2
And a great multitude followed him, because they saw his miracles which he did on them that were diseased. (HIB=sick)
John 6:21
Then they willingly received him into the ship: and immediately (Aramiac=that hour) the ship was at the land whither they went.
KJV=separation (hib= impurity)
John 17:15 (subtle meaning change)
NKJV= I do not pray that You should take them out of the world, but that You should keep them from the evil one.
Aram=…that You might keep evil from them.
Gal. 2:16
`Sweet savour` (HIB=restful fragrance)
“Syrian” (KJV)= Aramean (HIB)
Jacob was a “plain” (KJV) man HIB=”flawless”
`Order of Scripture`
When the Apostles put together their original canon, they placed the writings of Ya’akov, Kefa, Yochanan and Yehudah (James, Peter, John and Jude) in front of the epistles of Shaul. This was done precisely so the reader would first read the warnings contained in these so-called ‘Jewish’ Apostles’ letters and not think that Shaul was suggesting that the Commandments were done away with. (The order was later re-arranged by the Church.)
`Passover`
he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter (sic) to bring him forth to the people. [Ma’aseh (Acts) 12:4 KJV]
All major versions since the King James have corrected this error. Even the New King James reads:
4 So when he had arrested him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four squads of soldiers to keep him, intending to bring him before the people after Passover. [Ma’aseh (Acts) 12:4 NKJV]
`Paul’s Writings`
King James Version reads:
16 Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holy day, or of the new moons, or of the sabbath (days): [17] Which are a shadow of things to come; but the body (is) of Christ. [Colossians 2:16-17, KJV]
The King James makes it appear as if we should never let anyone judge us according to what we eat or drink, or what days we keep in worship. It also seems to suggest that it makes no difference whether we keep the same days of worship the Apostles kept, or whether we keep the Sun-day and Easter, because (after all) the Body is of Messiah
When we take this back to the Greek Texts, we find that the words in parenthesis, (days) and (is) do not appear. They appear in the King James only because the translators added these words, in order to make the passage harmonize with the popular view that the Law and the Prophets had been abolished.
Here is the exact same passage, but with the supplied words (days) and (is) taken out:
16 Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holy day, or of the new moons, or of the Sabbath; which are a shadow of things to come; but the Body of Christ [Colossians 2:16-17]
In other words:
16 Let no man but the Body of Messiah judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holy day, or of the new moons, or of the Sabbath; for the festivals are shadows of things (still) to come. [Colossians 2:16-17]
Rather than telling us that the festivals do not matter, Shaul is actually telling us that we should keep the Sabbath, the Festivals and the New Moons, because they are prophetic shadows of future events. Shaul’s true meaning, however, is not at all reflected in the New International Version, which reads:
16 Therefore do not let anyone judge you by what you eat or drink, or with regard to a religious festival, a New Moon celebration or a Sabbath day. 17 These are a shadow of the things that were to come; the reality, however, is found in Christ. [Colossians 2:16-17, NIV]
The NIV tells us that these prophetic shadows of future events are now all discarded, or irrelevant. The NIV further suggests that as long as one believes that Yeshua is the Messiah, it no longer makes any difference what one might eat or drink, or what days of worship one might decide to keep (if any).
Romans 5:7
7 For scarcely for a righteous (this word is supposed to be “wicked”, not righteous. This was a translation mistake from the Aramaic.) man will one die; yet perhaps for a good man someone would even dare to die.
` Propitiatory Shelter`
In addition to being translated as “atonement” by KJV, “propitiatory shelter” is translated as “mercy seat” by KJV in 16:15, “propitiatory shelter” is also translated as “reconciling” by KJV in Lev. 16:20.
`Prosper` = “act intelligently” (HIB)
Lev 17:7 (KJV) And they shall no more offer their sacrifices unto devils (HIB hairy goat idols), after whom they have gone a whoring. This shall be a statute for ever unto them throughout their generations.
Gen 28
17 And he was afraid, and said, How dreadful (HIB says “being feared”)[is] this place! this [is] none other but the house of God, and this [is] the gate of heaven (hib=the Heavens).
Genesis 48:22
Moreover I have given to you one portion (hib = mountain slope) above your brothers, which I took from the hand of the Amorite with my sword and my bow.”
Genesis 49:6
Let not my soul enter their council; Let not my honor be united to their assembly; For in their anger they slew a man, And in their self-will they hamstrung an ox (this is NKJV. KJV says wall not ox. HIB says bull).
Exodus 1:16
When speaking of the place the Hebrew women gave birth, KJV calls them the “stools” HIB says the “bracing stones”.
Deut. 29:9
Therefore keep the words of this covenant, and do them, that you may prosper (hib= act intelligently) in all that you do.
Deut. 33:8 – Thummim & Urim
And of Levi he said: “Let Your Thummim (HIB=flawlessness) and Your Urim (HIB=lights of you) be with Your holy one, Whom You tested at Massah, And with whom You contended at the waters of Meribah,
Leviticus 19:26 Vs 26 Ye shall not eat [anything] with the blood: neither shall ye use enchantment (hib=augur), nor observe times(hib=consult cloud).
`Reconciling`
In Lev. 16:20, “propitiatory shelter” (HIB) while KJV says “reconciling”.
`Tabernacle`
In Lev. 16:20, “Tabernacle” (KJV) is called “the tent of appointment” (HIB)
`Tribes` HIB = Stocks from H5186; a branch (as extending); figuratively, a tribe; also a rod, whether for chastising (figuratively, correction), ruling (a sceptre), throwing (a lance), or walking (a staff; figuratively, a support of life, e.g. bread):--rod, staff, tribe.
‘Tribulation’
HIB=Narrow or tight place, -trouble, an opponent
`Unclean Foods`
Many have interpreted Mark 7:17-19 (the account of the washing of the hands), to mean that Yeshua set aside the food laws. Many western Bibles go as far as to say it in their footnotes, but by doing so he would have contradicted himself. His detractors had just accused him of not observing their traditions, and he had responded that they did far worse; they did not observe the commandments of the Torah (vv. 9-13). To choose this time to set aside other commandments of the Torah would have undercut his whole response. It would have left him open to the charge they made, and which he implicitly denied. It would also have shown him to be inconsistent.[76]
But then, what did he mean here?
The passage about the washing of hands does not justify the assumption that Jesus opposed the Jewish legal practice of this time; but by the third century, Origen understood it as signifying the rejection of Jewish dietary laws by Jesus. The overwhelming majority of modern translators thoughtlessly accept Origen's interpretation when they take Mark 7:19b to mean "Thus he declared all foods clean," although the Greek original can hardly be read in this sense. - David Flusser